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	<title>Comments on: Don&#8217;t Ignore The Assets</title>
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	<description>Value Investing Blog</description>
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		<title>By: Mike</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-2605</link>
		<dc:creator>Mike</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 23 Jan 2009 10:20:12 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>In your sentence,

Using the &quot;ignore the assets&quot; valuation (assuming 10 years of cash flow plus 10x the sale price), the valuation is similar - $5.63 million.

I don&#039;t understand what 10x the sale price is? 

Thanks,

Mike</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>In your sentence,</p>
<p>Using the &#8220;ignore the assets&#8221; valuation (assuming 10 years of cash flow plus 10x the sale price), the valuation is similar &#8211; $5.63 million.</p>
<p>I don&#8217;t understand what 10x the sale price is? </p>
<p>Thanks,</p>
<p>Mike</p>
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		<title>By: Nish</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1223</link>
		<dc:creator>Nish</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 17 Jan 2008 20:11:07 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1223</guid>
		<description>Hi Joe

Some time back, i disputed your approach of adding &#039;net worth&#039; to &#039;PV of future owner&#039;s earnings&#039; to derive the &#039;value of the business&#039;. That was strictly from a theoretical point of view, but i understand now why you do so, from a practical point of view. Even at that earlier instance, i mentioned that everyone has to eventually derive and modify his own model of calculation, and i can see that is exactly what you have done. 

The objective here is to find a link between &#039;upside potential&#039; and &#039;downside protection&#039; of a stock. When an analyst focusses only on P/E ratios or DDM, he is only looking at the earnings potential of a business i.e. the &#039;upside potential&#039;. However, if for some reason, this business suddenly loses its earning potential tomorrow, there is no protection/floor on this stock price. It can literally go to zero. On the other hand, if someone focusses only on the P/B ratio or &#039;Net current assets&#039;, he is only focussed on the downside protection of the stock; he will buy cheap stocks, that will have a good liquidation value, BUT there may be no earnings potential at all and hence, no point in buying such a stock. 

Thus, an extreme focus on either approach may not be optimal, and hence the need to connect the potential returns (if the business keeps going) with the potential risk (if the business stops tomorrow). That is exactly what you have done, by introducing &#039;Book value&quot; into &#039;DDM&#039;. There are also other ways to achieve this objective.

Anyway i have one main feedback for you. Lets say we use your model to value two companies A and B.  A has no net worth at all, but its present value of all future owner&#039;s earnings is $100. So you will price it at $100. Then, we have company B, which has cash of $100, but no earnings at all. Even this company will be priced at $100 by your model. Quantitatively, you should be indifferent between these two, when actually you may never want to buy company B. Of course, qualitatively you will rule &#039;B&#039; out, but what i want to know is that, quantitatively, do you have any way to address this problem. This is the only drawback of your model that i think of right now. 

Cheers.

Nish.

</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Hi Joe</p>
<p>Some time back, i disputed your approach of adding &#8216;net worth&#8217; to &#8216;PV of future owner&#8217;s earnings&#8217; to derive the &#8216;value of the business&#8217;. That was strictly from a theoretical point of view, but i understand now why you do so, from a practical point of view. Even at that earlier instance, i mentioned that everyone has to eventually derive and modify his own model of calculation, and i can see that is exactly what you have done. </p>
<p>The objective here is to find a link between &#8216;upside potential&#8217; and &#8216;downside protection&#8217; of a stock. When an analyst focusses only on P/E ratios or DDM, he is only looking at the earnings potential of a business i.e. the &#8216;upside potential&#8217;. However, if for some reason, this business suddenly loses its earning potential tomorrow, there is no protection/floor on this stock price. It can literally go to zero. On the other hand, if someone focusses only on the P/B ratio or &#8216;Net current assets&#8217;, he is only focussed on the downside protection of the stock; he will buy cheap stocks, that will have a good liquidation value, BUT there may be no earnings potential at all and hence, no point in buying such a stock. </p>
<p>Thus, an extreme focus on either approach may not be optimal, and hence the need to connect the potential returns (if the business keeps going) with the potential risk (if the business stops tomorrow). That is exactly what you have done, by introducing &#8216;Book value&#8221; into &#8216;DDM&#8217;. There are also other ways to achieve this objective.</p>
<p>Anyway i have one main feedback for you. Lets say we use your model to value two companies A and B.  A has no net worth at all, but its present value of all future owner&#8217;s earnings is $100. So you will price it at $100. Then, we have company B, which has cash of $100, but no earnings at all. Even this company will be priced at $100 by your model. Quantitatively, you should be indifferent between these two, when actually you may never want to buy company B. Of course, qualitatively you will rule &#8216;B&#8217; out, but what i want to know is that, quantitatively, do you have any way to address this problem. This is the only drawback of your model that i think of right now. </p>
<p>Cheers.</p>
<p>Nish.</p>
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		<title>By: Joe Ponzio</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1206</link>
		<dc:creator>Joe Ponzio</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 16 Jan 2008 04:38:35 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1206</guid>
		<description>Wayne,

You are precisely right - we should be figuring out what capital spending is for growth vs. maintenance. It is a question of growth; namely, is your company plowing money into capital expenditures because it is expanding or because it has to. As such, each company must be analyzed individually. I&#039;ve said it before - just because I have posted my spreadsheets on particular companies doesn&#039;t mean those spreadsheets will work precisely on all companies.

In the case of Johnson &amp; Johnson, capital expenditures and depreciation are substantially the same. That is, JNJ does not need to make huge capital expenditures (in relation to depreciation) to maintain its ground competitively. Quite the opposite is true in, for example, GM which has had to spend $114 billion in capital expenditures (net of depreciation) just to try and keep competitive. That is money that we silent partners will likely never recoup.

What would happen to GM if it didn&#039;t spend that money just to maintain its operations? It would shrink - in real terms - to nothing.

So, to answer your original question: this approach should be used for all businesses. I know that some people have modified my spreadsheet to quickly screen, analyze and present hundreds of companies at a time. While they are free to do so, it takes away from the whole point: Find quality companies, analyze them as a silent partner, and then buy when the price is right.

Make sense?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Wayne,</p>
<p>You are precisely right &#8211; we should be figuring out what capital spending is for growth vs. maintenance. It is a question of growth; namely, is your company plowing money into capital expenditures because it is expanding or because it has to. As such, each company must be analyzed individually. I&#8217;ve said it before &#8211; just because I have posted my spreadsheets on particular companies doesn&#8217;t mean those spreadsheets will work precisely on all companies.</p>
<p>In the case of Johnson &#038; Johnson, capital expenditures and depreciation are substantially the same. That is, JNJ does not need to make huge capital expenditures (in relation to depreciation) to maintain its ground competitively. Quite the opposite is true in, for example, GM which has had to spend $114 billion in capital expenditures (net of depreciation) just to try and keep competitive. That is money that we silent partners will likely never recoup.</p>
<p>What would happen to GM if it didn&#8217;t spend that money just to maintain its operations? It would shrink &#8211; in real terms &#8211; to nothing.</p>
<p>So, to answer your original question: this approach should be used for all businesses. I know that some people have modified my spreadsheet to quickly screen, analyze and present hundreds of companies at a time. While they are free to do so, it takes away from the whole point: Find quality companies, analyze them as a silent partner, and then buy when the price is right.</p>
<p>Make sense?</p>
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		<title>By: Tom</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1203</link>
		<dc:creator>Tom</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 15 Jan 2008 12:05:19 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1203</guid>
		<description>

Wayne:

Thank you for the response....

While I used BNI as an example, my questions is more conceptual, in that I am wondering why this approach (Joe&#039;s Wal-Mart analysis) is not used for all companies. It seems to me that to get the true picture of cash generation, you need to add back cash spent on expansion and cash returned to the owners. Then you can value the company and decide whether management is using cash appropriately before making an investment decision.

Thanks again.

Tom</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Wayne:</p>
<p>Thank you for the response&#8230;.</p>
<p>While I used BNI as an example, my questions is more conceptual, in that I am wondering why this approach (Joe&#8217;s Wal-Mart analysis) is not used for all companies. It seems to me that to get the true picture of cash generation, you need to add back cash spent on expansion and cash returned to the owners. Then you can value the company and decide whether management is using cash appropriately before making an investment decision.</p>
<p>Thanks again.</p>
<p>Tom</p>
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		<title>By: Wayne</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1201</link>
		<dc:creator>Wayne</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 15 Jan 2008 04:25:51 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1201</guid>
		<description>

Tom:  The BNI quarterly investor reports show CapEx broken out between maintenance and expansion.   Here is the CapEx used for new locomotives and line/terminal expansion (first column), and the result of adding it back to FCF:

1998	844     	71      =    915

1999	513	636	1149

2000	133	918	1051

2001	126	738	864

2002	103	748	851

2003	488	559	1047

2004	239	850	1089

2005	389	859	1248

2006	450	1094	1544

This certainly makes BNI look more attractive and worth considering a purchase.  However, the sub-par ROIC (consistent and averaging 4% for the last 10 years) makes me wonder if the expansion CapEx is a wise use of FCF.

</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Tom:  The BNI quarterly investor reports show CapEx broken out between maintenance and expansion.   Here is the CapEx used for new locomotives and line/terminal expansion (first column), and the result of adding it back to FCF:</p>
<p>1998	844     	71      =    915</p>
<p>1999	513	636	1149</p>
<p>2000	133	918	1051</p>
<p>2001	126	738	864</p>
<p>2002	103	748	851</p>
<p>2003	488	559	1047</p>
<p>2004	239	850	1089</p>
<p>2005	389	859	1248</p>
<p>2006	450	1094	1544</p>
<p>This certainly makes BNI look more attractive and worth considering a purchase.  However, the sub-par ROIC (consistent and averaging 4% for the last 10 years) makes me wonder if the expansion CapEx is a wise use of FCF.</p>
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		<title>By: Chungst</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1199</link>
		<dc:creator>Chungst</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Jan 2008 23:45:51 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1199</guid>
		<description>Disclaimer -- please do not copy my information and post on other (web-)sites without my permission.  I post here so Joe can reap the benefits (what little it might be) of his hard work.  Thank you.

Joe:

Why do you makes things so hard on yourself!!!!  Any cash-based analyst or any good analyst worth his salt knows that NOT ALL ASSETS are on the balance sheet!  Livnat covers this point in his book, Fried covers this as well, so many accounting professors go over this topic -- deficiencies of financial statements. Take management for example.

Managament is not on the balance sheet per US GAAP.  However, when you have a guy like Buffett or Munger or Jack Welch versus Bernie Ebbers or Kenneth Lay managing the same company -- and thus the same assets, you get two different sets of value.  That is enough to shoot that theory down period.

Again, I have no idea why this is even an issue.  URGH!!! Going back to my hole. 

Regards,

-C

Again, please link or refence the site -- please do not post the message outside www.fwallstreet.com.  Thank you.

</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Disclaimer &#8212; please do not copy my information and post on other (web-)sites without my permission.  I post here so Joe can reap the benefits (what little it might be) of his hard work.  Thank you.</p>
<p>Joe:</p>
<p>Why do you makes things so hard on yourself!!!!  Any cash-based analyst or any good analyst worth his salt knows that NOT ALL ASSETS are on the balance sheet!  Livnat covers this point in his book, Fried covers this as well, so many accounting professors go over this topic &#8212; deficiencies of financial statements. Take management for example.</p>
<p>Managament is not on the balance sheet per US GAAP.  However, when you have a guy like Buffett or Munger or Jack Welch versus Bernie Ebbers or Kenneth Lay managing the same company &#8212; and thus the same assets, you get two different sets of value.  That is enough to shoot that theory down period.</p>
<p>Again, I have no idea why this is even an issue.  URGH!!! Going back to my hole. </p>
<p>Regards,</p>
<p>-C</p>
<p>Again, please link or refence the site &#8212; please do not post the message outside <a href="http://www.fwallstreet.com" rel="nofollow">http://www.fwallstreet.com</a>.  Thank you.</p>
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		<title>By: kfh227</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1197</link>
		<dc:creator>kfh227</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Jan 2008 17:03:19 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1197</guid>
		<description>I love your site.   I am curious about your book.  I didn&#039;t know you were currently penning one.  IS there information on it anywhere on your site?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I love your site.   I am curious about your book.  I didn&#8217;t know you were currently penning one.  IS there information on it anywhere on your site?</p>
]]></content:encoded>
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		<title>By: Tom</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1196</link>
		<dc:creator>Tom</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Jan 2008 15:22:52 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1196</guid>
		<description>Sorry for the typo and any resulting confusions, but:

The left column thus should represent item (iii) -- the FCF available after cash is used for options (i) and (ii).

Thanks.

Tom</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Sorry for the typo and any resulting confusions, but:</p>
<p>The left column thus should represent item (iii) &#8212; the FCF available after cash is used for options (i) and (ii).</p>
<p>Thanks.</p>
<p>Tom</p>
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		<title>By: Babui</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1195</link>
		<dc:creator>Babui</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Jan 2008 15:13:19 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1195</guid>
		<description>A significant part of assets (in many a balance sheet) is goodwill.  Often, the goodwill ends up being written off (or at least some portion of it).  Wouldn&#039;t it be better to add tangible equity (assets - goodwill - liabilities) to discounted cash flow as opposed to the current F Wall St method?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>A significant part of assets (in many a balance sheet) is goodwill.  Often, the goodwill ends up being written off (or at least some portion of it).  Wouldn&#8217;t it be better to add tangible equity (assets &#8211; goodwill &#8211; liabilities) to discounted cash flow as opposed to the current F Wall St method?</p>
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		<title>By: Tom</title>
		<link>http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets/#comment-1194</link>
		<dc:creator>Tom</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Jan 2008 14:12:29 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.fwallstreet.com/article/100-dont-ignore-the-assets#comment-1194</guid>
		<description>Joe, David and Wayne (and everyone else interested):

I posted this previously, but since BNI has come up again here I wanted to repost with some more detail. I believe, but I want to check with Joe and the group, that the &quot;missing piece&quot; to BNI is the &quot;maintenance&quot; versus &quot;expansion&quot; capex, similar to Joe&#039;s prior analysis of Wal-Mart regarding the opening of addional stores. BNI is using cash every year to buy new engines, lay new rail and increase the size of its operations, and its potential future returns, which I believe should be taken into account in our analysis.

Really, it seems that this adding back of expansion capex is something that should be done for every business that we evaluate, as in theory, every business is trying to expand. For WMT that is additional stores, and for BNI that is additional tracks, engines, etc. to expand the business. Further, it seems we should add back in cash used for dividends and share repurchases, as this is cash the business generates that is available, and does, go to the owners.

So my question is when do we decide to undertake this additional evaluation? This is an exercise that clearly has a large effect on our valuation, but may not be immediately noticeable. 

For what it&#039;s worth, after this work-up I get a target price for BNI of $85 with a 25% margin of safety (total value is 112 per share using a 15% discount rate). (although anyone should feel free to poke holes or chime in...)

Here are the differences in annual FCF when you add &quot;expansion&quot; cap-ex and dividends/share repurchases back to morningstar numbers:

1997 --  negative 368.0 (morningstar number) versus  $425 (full cash flow)

1998 --  71 v. 1,051 

1999 -- 636 v. 1,675 

2000 --  918 v. 3,133 

2001 -- 738 v. 1,362 

2002 -- 748 v. 1,398 

2003 -- 559 v. 1,455 

2004 -- 850 v. 1,680 	

2005 -- 859 v. 2,914 

2006 -- 1,094 v. 2,584 

So, the column on the right is the amount of cash that BNI generated each year. The choice was then whether to (i) return this cash to the owners via dividends and share repurchases, (ii) to invest in expanding the business or (iii) hold as cash for the future. The left column thus should represent item (iii) -- the total FCF available.

To get the true picture of the business, shouldn&#039;t our valuation be based on all three? We should also take into account the CROIC to determine if management is deciding wisely between options (i), (ii) and (iii) before we invest, but this seems to present a more complete overall picture.

Thanks again for the great blog, this site really is fantastic at breaking things down in a simple and easy way, and we all appreciate the time you put in!

Tom</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Joe, David and Wayne (and everyone else interested):</p>
<p>I posted this previously, but since BNI has come up again here I wanted to repost with some more detail. I believe, but I want to check with Joe and the group, that the &#8220;missing piece&#8221; to BNI is the &#8220;maintenance&#8221; versus &#8220;expansion&#8221; capex, similar to Joe&#8217;s prior analysis of Wal-Mart regarding the opening of addional stores. BNI is using cash every year to buy new engines, lay new rail and increase the size of its operations, and its potential future returns, which I believe should be taken into account in our analysis.</p>
<p>Really, it seems that this adding back of expansion capex is something that should be done for every business that we evaluate, as in theory, every business is trying to expand. For WMT that is additional stores, and for BNI that is additional tracks, engines, etc. to expand the business. Further, it seems we should add back in cash used for dividends and share repurchases, as this is cash the business generates that is available, and does, go to the owners.</p>
<p>So my question is when do we decide to undertake this additional evaluation? This is an exercise that clearly has a large effect on our valuation, but may not be immediately noticeable. </p>
<p>For what it&#8217;s worth, after this work-up I get a target price for BNI of $85 with a 25% margin of safety (total value is 112 per share using a 15% discount rate). (although anyone should feel free to poke holes or chime in&#8230;)</p>
<p>Here are the differences in annual FCF when you add &#8220;expansion&#8221; cap-ex and dividends/share repurchases back to morningstar numbers:</p>
<p>1997 &#8212;  negative 368.0 (morningstar number) versus  $425 (full cash flow)</p>
<p>1998 &#8212;  71 v. 1,051 </p>
<p>1999 &#8212; 636 v. 1,675 </p>
<p>2000 &#8212;  918 v. 3,133 </p>
<p>2001 &#8212; 738 v. 1,362 </p>
<p>2002 &#8212; 748 v. 1,398 </p>
<p>2003 &#8212; 559 v. 1,455 </p>
<p>2004 &#8212; 850 v. 1,680 	</p>
<p>2005 &#8212; 859 v. 2,914 </p>
<p>2006 &#8212; 1,094 v. 2,584 </p>
<p>So, the column on the right is the amount of cash that BNI generated each year. The choice was then whether to (i) return this cash to the owners via dividends and share repurchases, (ii) to invest in expanding the business or (iii) hold as cash for the future. The left column thus should represent item (iii) &#8212; the total FCF available.</p>
<p>To get the true picture of the business, shouldn&#8217;t our valuation be based on all three? We should also take into account the CROIC to determine if management is deciding wisely between options (i), (ii) and (iii) before we invest, but this seems to present a more complete overall picture.</p>
<p>Thanks again for the great blog, this site really is fantastic at breaking things down in a simple and easy way, and we all appreciate the time you put in!</p>
<p>Tom</p>
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